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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

16.06.2025 04:06

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

What is an appropriate response to someone saying "merci" in French?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

You'll usually find your answer there.

There's no rule.

Why do some people dislike rap and hip hop music despite there being poor quality music in every genre?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

What is the boldest and craziest thing your mother has ever done for you?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.